Q.1) With
reference to the carbon nanotubes, consider the following statement:
1. They can
be used as the carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
2. They can be made into the artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of human body.
3. They can
be used in biochemical sensors.
4. Carbon
nanotubes are biodegradable.
Which of
the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2,3 and 4
only
c) 1,3 and 4
only
d) 1,2,3 and
4
Ans: D
Q.2)
Consider the following activities:
1. Spraying
pesticides on a crop field
2.
Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes
3.
Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis
At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully carried out by using drones?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans D
Q.3) The
experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of
an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers
shining between the craft." The experiment in question refers to
a) Voyager-2
b) New Horizons
c) LISA
Pathfinder
d) Evolved
LISA
Ans D
Q.4)
Consider the following statements:
1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
2.
A
person's genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage.
3.
Human
induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans D
Q.5) What
is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India?
1. These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis.
2.
Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant
bacteria can be reduced.
3. These
vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans B
Q.6) In
India, the term "Public Key Infrastructure" is used in the context of
a) Digital
security infrastructure
b) Food security infrastructure
c) Health
care and education infrastructure
d)
Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure
Ans A
Q.7)
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference
between plant and animal cells?
1. Plant
cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not.
2. Plant cells do not have plasma membrane unlike animal cells which do.
3. Mature
plant cell has one large vacuole whilst animal cell has many small vacuoles.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans C
Q.8)
Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene
pollution?
1.
Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco
smoke
3. Wood
burning
4. Using varnished wooden furniture
5. Using
products made of polyurethane
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and
3 only
b) 2 and 4
only
c) 1, 3 and
4 only
d) 1, 2, 3,
4 and 5
Ans D
Q.9) If
another global financial crisis happens in the near future, which of the
following actions/policies are most likely to give some immunity to India?
1. Not
depending on short-term foreign borrowings
2. Opening up to more foreign banks
3.
Maintaining full capital account convertibility
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: A
Q.10) If you withdraw 1,00,000 in cash from your Demand Deposit Account at your bank, the immediate effect on aggregate money supply in the economy will be
a) to reduce
it by 1,00,000 rupees
b) to
increase it by 1,00,000 rupees
c) to
increase it by more than 1,00,000 rupees
d) to leave
it unchanged
Ans: D
Q.11) With reference to the cultural history of India, which one of the following is the
correct
description of the term ‘paramitas’?
a) The
earliest Dharmashastra texts written in aphoristic (sutra) style.
b)
Philosophical schools that did not accept the authority of Vedas.
c)
Perfections whose attainment led to the Bodhisattva path
d) Powerful
merchant guilds of early medieval south India.
Ans: C
Q.12) In
the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai case of 1884 revolved around:
1. women’s
right to gain education
2. age of
consent
3.
restitution of conjugal rights
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 1,2 and
3
Ans: B
Q.13)
Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning of the 20th century
because of
a) Peasant
resistance to the oppressive conduct of planters
b) Its unprofitability in the world market because of new inventions
c) National
leaders’ opposition to the cultivation of indigo
d)
Government control over the planters
Ans: B
Q.14)
Wellesley established the Fort William College at Calcutta because
a) He was
asked by the Board of Directors at London to do so
b) He wanted to revive interest in oriental learning in India
c) He wanted
to provide William Carey and his associates employment
d) He wanted
to train British civilians for administrative purposes in India
Ans: D
Q.15)
With reference to the history of India, “Ulgulan” or the Great Tumult is the
description of which of the following events?
a) The
Revolt of 1857
b) The Mappila rebellion of 1921
c) The
Indigo revolt of 1859 - 60
d) Birsa
Munda’s revolt of 1899-1900
Ans: D
Q.16)
With reference to the scholars/litterateurs of ancient India, consider the
following statements:
1. Panini is associated with Pushyamitra Shunga
2.
Amarasimha is associated with Harshavardhana
3. Kalidasa
is associated with Chandra Gupta-II
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 3 only
d) 1,2 and
3
Ans: C
Q.17) In
the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, ‘Pronuclear
Transfer” is used for
a)
Fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor sperm
b) Genetic
modification of sperm producing cells
c)
Development of stem cells into functional embryos
d)
Prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring
Ans: D
Q.18)
With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively
do which of the following?
1. Bring
down electricity consumption in industrial units
2. Create
meaningful short stories and songs
3. Disease
diagnosis
4.
Text-to-speech conversion
5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1,2,3 and
5 only
b) 1,3, and
4 only
c) 2,4 and 5
only
d) 1,2,3,4
and 5
Ans: D
Q.19)
With reference to visible light communication (VLC) technology, which of the
following statements are correct?
1. VLC uses
electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780nm
2. VLC is
known as long-range optical wireless communication
3. VLC can
transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth
4. VLC has
no electromagnetic interference
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1, 2 and
3 only
b) 1, 2 and
4 only
c) 1, 3 and
4 only
d) 2, 3 and
4 only
Ans: C
Q.20) With reference to “Blockchain Technology” consider the following statements:
1.
It
is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which no single user
controls.
2.
The
structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about
cryptocurrency only.
3.
Applications
that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody’s
permission.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3
only
Ans: D
Q.21) A parliamentary system of government is one in which?
a) All
political parties in the parliament are represented in the government
b) The
government is responsible to the parliament and can be removed by it.
c) The
government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
d) The
government is chosen by the parliament but cannot be removed by it before
completion of a fixed term
Ans: B
Q.22)
Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare state?
a) Directive
principles of state policy
b)
Fundamental rights
c) Preamble
d) Seventh
schedule
Ans: A
Q.23)
Consider the following statements:
1.
The
Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism,
secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the ‘citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the constitution is based.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1
and 2
d) Neither 1
nor 2
Ans: B
Q.24) One
common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is?
a) The final
goal of a stateless society
b) Class
struggle
c) Abolition
of private property
d) Economic
determinism
Ans: A
Q.25) In
the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic
appropriate for bureaucracy?
a) An agency
widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
b) An agency
for strengthening the structure of federalism
c) An agency
for facilitating political stability and economic growth
d) An agency for the implementation of public policy
Ans: D
Q.26) The
Preamble to the Constitution of India is
a) A part of
the Constitution but has no legal effect
b) Not a
part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
c) A part of
the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
d) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts
Ans: D
Q.27)
“Gold Tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to
a) A loan
system of the World bank
b) One of
the operations of a central bank
c) A credit
system granted by WTO to its members
d) A credit
system granted by IMF to its members
Ans: D
Q.28)
With reference to the provisions contained in partIV of the constitution of
India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.
They
shall be enforceable by courts
2.
They
shall not be enforceable by any court
3.
The
principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the
state
Select
the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 2 and 3
only
Ans: D
Q.29) Consider the following statements:
1.
According
to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a
minister in a state for six months even if he/she isnot a member of that state.
2. According to the Representation of People Act,1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1
and 2
d) Neither 1
nor 2
Ans: A
Q.30)
Consider the following statements:
1.
The
president of India can summon a session of Parliament at such place as he/she
thinks fit.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions
3.
There
is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: C
Q.31)
Consider the following statements:
1.
Aadhaar
metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhar data
3.
Aadhaar
is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4.
Aadhaar
is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated fund of India.
Which of
the statements give above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 4
only
b) 2 and 4
only
c) 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
only
Ans: B
Q.32)
Rajyasabha has equal powers with Loksabha in
a) The
matter of creating new all India services
b) Amending
the Constitution
c) The
removal of the government
d) Making
cut motions
Ans: B
Q.33)
With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development
Scheme(MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?
1.
MPLADS
funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for
health, education etc.,
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations
3.
MPLADS
funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried
forward to the next year.
4.
The
district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation
every year
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1,2 and 3
only
d) 1,2 and 4
only
Ans: D
Q.34) Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
a) Right
against Exploitation
b) Right to
freedom
c) Right to
constitutional remedies
d) Right to
equality
Ans: D
Q.35) In
India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by
a) The
Preamble of the Constitution
b) A
Directive Principle of state policy
c) The
Seventh schedule
d) The
conventional practice
Ans: B
Q.36) Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by
a) Long
convention standing parliamentary
b) Article
112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India
c) Article
113 of the Constitution of India
d)
Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
Ans: D
Q.37) A
constitutional government by definition is a
a)
government by legislature
b) popular government
c) Multi
party government
d) Limited
government
Ans: D
Q.38)
Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the
Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the
Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
1. Preamble
2.
Directive
Principles of State Policy
3.
Fundamental
Duties
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
Q.39) In
India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the
following type of citizens?
1.
Person
with an annual income of less than Rs. 1,00,000
2.
Transgender
with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000
4.
All
Senior Citizens
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 3 and 4
only
c) 2 and 3
only
d) 1 and 4 only
Ans: A
Q.40)
Consider the following pairs:
International
agreement/set-up Subject
1.
Alma-Ata
Declaration Healthcare of the people
2.
Hague
Convention Biological and chemical weapons
3. Talanoa Dialogue Global climate change
4.
Under2
Coalition Child rights
Which of
the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 4 only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 2, 3 and
4 only
Ans: C
Q.41)
With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:
1.
Aurang
In- Charge of treasury of the State
2.
Banian-
Indian agent of the East India Company
3.
Mirasidar-
Designated revenue payer to the State
Which of
the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: B
Q.42)
With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following
statements:
1.
Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism.
2. Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism.
3. The
deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas fostered the Mahayana Buddhism.
Which of
the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: B
Q.43)
Which of the following statements correctly explain the impact of Industrial
Revolution on India during the first half of the nineteenth century?
a) Indian
handicrafts were ruined.
b) Machines were introduced in the Indian textile industry in large number.
c) Railway
lines were laid in many parts of the country.
d) Heavy
duties were imposed on the imports of British manufactures.
Ans: A
Q.44)
Consider the following events in the history of India:
1. Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja
2.
Establishment
of Pallava power under Mahendravarman - I
3.
Establishment
of Chola Parantaka – I
4.
Pala
dynasty founded by Gopala
What is
the correct chronological order of the above events, starting from the earliest
time?
a) 2-1-4-3
b) 3-1-4-2
c) 2 -4-1-3
d) 3-4-1-2
Ans: C
Q.45)
Which of the following phrases defines the nature of the 'Hundi' generally
referred to in the sources of the post-Harsha period?
a) An advisory issued by the king to his subordinates
b) A diary
to be maintained for daily accounts
c) A bill of
exchange
d) An order
from the feudal lord to his subordinates
Ans: C
Q.46) With reference to the book "Desher Katha" written by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during the freedom struggle, consider the following statements:
1.
It
warned against the Colonial State hypnotic conquest of the mind.
2.
It
inspired the performance of swadeshi street plays and folk songs.
3.
The
use of 'desh' by Deuskar was in the specific context of the region of Bengal.
Which of
the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: A
Q.47) The
Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of the following?
1. Invitation to Congress to participate in the Round Table Conference
2.
Withdrawal
of Ordinances promulgated in connection with the Civil Disobedience Movement
3.
Acceptance
of Gandhi's suggestion for enquiry into police excesses
4.
Release
of only those prisoners who were not charged with violence
Select
the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2 and
4 only
c) 3 only
d) 2, 3 and
4 only
Ans: B
Q.48) The
Vital-Vidhvansak, the first monthly journal to have the untouchable people as
its target audience was published by
a) Gopal Baba Walangkar
b) Jyotiba
Phule
c) Mohandas
Karamchand Gandhi
d) Bhimrao
Ramji Ambedkar
Ans: A
Q.49) With reference to the history of India, the terms "kulyavapa" and "dronavapa" denote
a)
measurement of land
b) coins of
different monetary value
c)
classification of urban land
d) religious
rituals
Ans: A
Q.50) Who among the following rulers advised his subjects through this inscription?
"Whosoever
praises his religious sect or blames other sects out of excessive devotion to
his own sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his
own sect very severely."
a) Ashoka
b)
Samudragupta
c)
Harshavardhana
d) Krishna
Deva Raya
Ans: A
Q.51)
What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture?
1.
Controlling
the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.
2.
Efficient
application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.
4.
Reduction
in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and
3 only
b) 1, 2 and
4 only
c) 1, 3 and
4 only
d) 2, 3 and
4 only
Ans: C
Q.52)
Consider the following minerals:
1.
Bentonite
2.
Chromite
3.
Kyanite
4. Sillimanite
In India,
which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 4 only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 2, 3 and
4 only
Ans: D
Q.53)
With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1.
OMT
is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 meters in the south-
western Indian Ocean during January – March.
2. OMT collected during January March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1
and 2
d) Neither 1
nor 2
Ans: B
Q.54)
With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following
statements:
1.
At
present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not
administered by the Government.
2.
Ammonia,
which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas.
3.
Sulphur,
which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer is by-product of oil
refineries.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 und
3
Ans: B
Q.55)
With reference to India's Desert National Park, which of the following
statements are correct?
1. It is spread over two districts.
2.
There
is no human habitation inside the Park.
3.
It
is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 und 3
only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
Q.56)
Siachen Glacier is situated to the
a) East of
Aksai Chin
b) East of
Leh
c) North of
Gilgit
d) North of
Nubra Valley
Ans: D
Q.57)
With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:
|
Famous Place |
Present State |
|
1. Bhilsa |
Madhya Pradesh |
|
2.
Dwarasamudra |
Maharashtra |
|
3.
Girinagar |
Gujarat |
|
4.
Shaneshwara |
Uttar Pradesh |
Which of
the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 3
only
b) 1 and 4
only
c) 2 and 3
only
d) 2 and 4 only
Ans: A
Q.58)
Consider the following statements:
1.
36%
of India's districts are classified as "overexploited” or “critical” by
the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
2. CGWA was formed under Environment (Protection) Act.
3.
India
has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3
only
Ans: B
Q.59)
Consider the following statements:
1.
Jet
streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
3.
The
temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10 C lesser than that of the
surroundings.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3
only
Ans: C
Q.60)
Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under
"Critical Tiger Habitat"?
a) Corbett
b)
Ranthambore
c)
Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
d)
Sunderbans
Ans: C
Q.61) If
a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife
Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?
a) A licence
is required to cultivate that plant.
b) Such a
plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances.
c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant.
d) Such a
plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem.
Ans: A
Q.62)
With reference to the period of Gupta dynasty in ancient India, the towns
Ghantasala, Kadura and Chaul were well known as
a) ports
handling foreign trade
b) capital
of powerful kingdoms
c) places of exquisite stone art and architecture
d) important
Buddhist pilgrimage centres
Ans: A
Q.63)
What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?
1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of previous crop.
2.
Without
the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the
wet soil is possible.
3.
Carbon
sequestration in the soil is possible.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: D
Q.64)
According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be
used
as raw
materials for the production of biofuels?
1. Cassava
2.
Damaged
wheat grains
3.
Groundnut
seeds
4.
Horse
gram
5.
Rotten
potatoes
6.
Sugar
beet
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1,2,5 and
6 only
b) 1,3,4 and 6 only
c) 2,3,4 and
5 only
d) 1,2,3,4,5
and 6
Ans: A
Q.65) Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the
a) long-term
damage done by a tonne of COÕ· emissions in a given year.
b)
requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its
citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
c) efforts
put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
d)
contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet
Earth.
Ans: A
Q.66)
With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following sentences:
1.
Black
gram can be cultivated as both Kharif and rabi crop.
2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production.
3.
In
the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased,
the production of rabi pulses has decreased.
Which of
the statement given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 2 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: A
Q.67) “The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A light well- drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally
suited for the cultivation of the
crop.” Which one of the following is the crop?
a) Cotton
b) Jute
c) Sugarcane
d) Tea
Ans: A
Q.68)
With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements:
1. Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and not for submersible pumps,
2.
Solar
power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with piston.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1
and 2
d) Neither 1
nor 2
Ans: D
Q.69)
With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India,
consider the following statements:
1.
A
substantial saving in seed material is when ‘bud chip settlings’ are raised in
a nursery and transplanted in the main field.
2. When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with single-budded setts as compared to setts with many buds.
3.
If
bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, single-budded
setts have better survival as compared to large setts.
4.
Sugarcane
can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and
4 only
Ans: C
Q.70) In
the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be
practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture?
1. Crop diversification
2.
Legume
intensification
3.
Tensiometer
use
4.
Vertical
farming
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1,2 and 3
only
b) 3 only
c) 4 only
d) 1,2,3 and
4
Ans: D
Q.71) In
India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in
agriculture?
1.
Fixing
Minimum Support Price for agriculture produce of all crops
2. Computerization of Primary Agriculture Credit Societies
3.
Social
Capital development
4.
Free
electricity supply of farmers
5.
Waiver
of agriculture loans by the banking system
6.
Setting
up of cold storage facilities by the governments
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and
5 only
b) 1,3, 4 and 5 only
c) 2, 3 and
6 only
d) 1, 2,
3,4, 5 and 6
Ans: C
Q.72)
What is the importance of the term “Interest Coverage Ratio” of a firm in
India?
1. It helps in understanding the present risk of a firm that a bank is going to give a loan to.
2.
It
helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm that a bank is going to give a
loan to.
3.
The
higher a borrowing firm’s level of Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its
ability to service its debt.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: A
Q.73)
Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in
India in the recent past?
1. Minimum Support Price
2.
Government’s
trading
3.
Government’s
stockpiling
4.
Consumer
subsidies
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1,2 and 4
only
b) 1,3 and 4
only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2, 3
and 4
Ans: D
Q.74)
Consider the following statements:
1.
The
value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has consistently increased in the last decade.
2. “Textile and textile articles” constitute an important item of the trade between India and Bangladesh.
3.
In
the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in
South Asia.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1,2 and
3
Ans: B
Q.75) In
which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20?
a)
Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey
b)
Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand
c) Brazil, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam
d)
Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea
Ans: A
Q.76) Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term credit support is given to farmers for which of the following purposes?
1.
Working
capital for maintenance of farm assets
2.
Purchase
of combine harvesters, tractors and mini trucks
3.
Consumption
requirements of farm households
4.
Post-harvest
expenses
5.
Construction
of family house and setting up of village cold storage facility
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and
5 only
b) 1, 3 and
4 only
c) 2, 3, 4
and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3,
4 and 5
Ans: B
Q.77)
Consider the following statements
1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
2.
The
WTI does not capture changes in, the prices of services, which CPI does.
3.
Reserve
Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide
on changing the key policy rates.
Which of
the statements given- above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: A
Q.78)
Consider the following pairs
River Flows
into
1.
Mekong
Andaman Sea
2. Thames Irish Sea
3.
Volga
Caspian Sea
4.
Zambezi
Indian Ocean
Which of
the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 3 only
c) 3 and 4
only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Ans: C
Q.79)
Consider the following statements
1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-seeds, the procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any State/UT of India.
2.
In
the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed in any State/UT at a level to
which the market price will never rise.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1
nor 2
Ans: D
Q.80)
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1.
'Commercial
Paper' is a short-term unsecured promissory note.
2. 'Certificate of Deposit' is a long-term instrument issued by the Reserve Bank of India to a corporation.
3.
'Call
Money' is a short-term finance used for interbank transactions.
4.
'Zero-Coupon
Bonds' are the interest bearing short-term bonds issued by the Scheduled
Commercial Banks to corporations.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2, 3 and
4 only
Ans: C
Q.81)
With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which one of the
following is considered its major characteristics?
a) It is the
investment through capital instruments essentially in a listed company.
b) It is largely non-debt creating capital flow.
c) It is the
investment which involves debt-servicing.
d) It is the
investment made by foreign institutional investors in the Government
securities.
Ans: B
Q.83) The
term 'West Texas Intermediate', sometimes found in news, refers to a grade of
a) Crude oil
b) Bullion
c) Rare earth elements
d) Uranium
Ans: A
Q.84) In
the context of the Indian economy, non-financial debt includes which of the
following?
1.
Housing
loans owed by households
2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards
3.
Treasury
hills
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: D
Q.85) In
India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under "IAEA Safeguards"
while others are not?
a) Some use
uranium and others use thorium
b) Some use imported uranium and others use domestic supplies
c) Some are
operated by foreign enterprises and others are operated by domestic enterprises
d) Some are
State-owned and others are privately-owned
Ans: B
Q.86)
With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited.
2. They
apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services.
3. They are
not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
Q.87) If
the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the
following would it not do?
1.
Cut
and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
2.
Increase
the Marginal Standing Facility Rate
3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: B
Q.88)
With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalization,
consider the following statements:
1.
Worker
productivity (per worker at 2004 — 05 prices) increased in urban areas while it
decreased in rural areas.
2. The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce steadily increased.
3.
In
rural areas, the growth in the non-farm economy increased.
4.
The
growth rate in rural employment decreased.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 3 and 4
only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: B
Q.89)
Consider the following statements:
1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks
2.
One
of the most important functions of DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary
Agricultural Credit Societies.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1
and 2
d) Neither
It nor 2
Ans: B
Q.90) In
India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits
are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other
benefits?
1.
Cost
of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to
one's computer
2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so
3.
Cost
of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber
extortion
4.
Cost
of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and
4 only
b) 1, 3 and
4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: B
Q.91)
With reference to cultural history of India consider the following pairs:
1.
Parivrajaka
Renunciant and Wanderer
2.
Shramana
Priest with a high status
3. Upasaka Lay follower of buddhism
Which of
the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 1 and 3
only
c) 2 and 3
only
d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: B
Q.92)
With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements:
1.
The
leader of an elephant group is a female
2.
The
maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
3.
An
elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only.
4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in kerala.
Which of
the statements given above is/ are correct?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 and 4
only
c) 3 only
d) 1,3 and 4
only
Ans: A
Q.93)
Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin?
1.
Nagarhole
National park
2.
Papikonda
National park
3.
Sathyamangalam
Tiger Reserve
4.
Wayanad
Wildlife sanctuary
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4
only
c) 1,3 and 4
only
d) 1,2,3 and
4
Ans: C
Q.94)
With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet,
Gray- chinned minivet and White- throated redstart are
a) Birds
b) Primates
c) Reptiles
d) Amphibians
Ans: A
Q.95) Which one of the following protected
areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp
deer (Barasinga) that thrives well in hard ground and is exclusively
graminivorous?
a) Kanha National Park
b) Manas
National Park
c) Mudumalai
Wildlife Sanctuary
d) Tal
Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary
Ans: A
Q.96)
Steel slag can be the material for which of the following?
1. Construction of base road
2.
Improvement
of agricultural soil
3.
Production
of cement
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 1,2, and
3
Ans: D
Q.97)
Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its
natural habitat?
1.
Askot
Wildlife Sanctuary
2.
Gangotri
National Park
3.
Kishanpur
Wildlife Sanctuary
4.
Manas
National Park
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4
only
d) 1 and 4
only
Ans: A
Q.98) In
rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for
ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint?
1.
Copper
slag
2.
Cold
mix asphalt technology
3. Geotextiles
4.
Hot
mix asphalt technology
5.
Portland
cement
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and
3 only
b) 2, 3 and
4 only
c) 4 and 5 only
d) 1 and 5
only
Ans: A
Q.99)
Consider the following statements:
1.
Coal
ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur-dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.
3.
High
ash content is observed in Indian coal.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: D
Q.100)
What is the use of biochar in farming?
1.
Biochar
can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming.
2.
When
biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen-
fixing microorganisms.
3. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it enables the growing medium to retain water for longer time.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: D
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