1.)
Consider the following statements:
1.
Agricultural
soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2.
Cattle
release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1
and 3 only
b) 2
and 3 only
c)
2 only
d) 1,
2 and 3
Ans: d
2.) What
is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isa pur and Kangsabati?
a) Recently
discovered uranium deposits
b) Tropical
rain forests
c)
Underground cave systems
d) Water
reservoirs
Ans: D
3.) In
the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel
for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:
1.
The
main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide
emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3.
Hydrogen
up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4.
H-CNG
makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2
and 3 only
c) 4
only
d) 1,
2, 3 and 4
Ans: B
4.) Why
are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
a) Clouds
absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.
b) Clouds
reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
c) The
Earth’s surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.
d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
Ans: B
5.)
Consider the following statements :
1.
The
44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the
election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2.
The
Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of
India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1
and 2
d) Neither 1
nor 2
Ans: B
6.) Consider the following statements:
1.
The
motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3.
The
details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of
India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4.
If
the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law
requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported
by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds
of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 only
c) 3 and 4
only
d) 1, 3 and
4
Ans: C
7.) The
Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime
ministership of
a)
Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Lal
Bahadur Shastri
c) Indira
Gandhi
d) Morarji
Desai
Ans: A
8.)
Consider the following statements:
1.
Coal
sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2.
Now,
coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3.
Till
recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now
India is self- sufficient in coal production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: A
9.)
Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2.
The
above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3.
The
term ‘Office of Profit’ is well- defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: A
10.)
Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal
land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
a) Third Schedule
b) Fifth
Schedule
c) Ninth
Schedule
d) Twelfth
Schedule
Ans: B
11.)
Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of
Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a
sustainable source of
a)
anti-malarial drug
b) biodiesel
c) pulp for
paper industry
d) textile
fibre
Ans: D
12.) For
the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/
remote sensing data used?
1.
Chlorophyll
content in the vegetation of a specific location
2.
Greenhouse
gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location
Select
the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 3 only
d) 1,
2 and 3
Ans: D
13.)
Consider the following :
1.
Chhattisgarh
2.
Madhya
Pradesh
3.
Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With
reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover
to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending
order?
a) 2-3-1-4
b) 2-3-4-1
c) 3-2-4-1
d) 3-2-1-4
Ans: C
14.)
Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane
hydrate’?
1.
Global
warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ arc found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3.
Methane
in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: D
15.)
Consider the following :
1.
Carbon
monoxide
2.
Methane
3.
Ozone
4.
Sulphur
dioxide
Which of
the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass
residue?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3 and
4 only
c) 1 and 4
only
d) 1,
2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
16.)
Consider the following pairs:
Sea
Bordering country
1.
Adriatic Sea
: Albania
2. Black Sea : Croatia
3.
Caspian Sea
:
Kazakhstan
4.
Mediterranean Sea :
Morocco
5.
Red Sea
:
Syria
Which of
the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and
4 only
b) 1, 3 and
4 only
c) 2 and 5
only
d) 1, 2, 3,
4 and 5
Ans: B
17.)
Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in
the last five years?
a) China
b) India
c) Myanmar
d) Vietnam
Ans: B
18.) Consider the following pairs :
Glacier
River
1.
Bandarpunch
: Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri : Chenab
3.
Milam
:
Mandakini
4.
Siachen
:
Nubra
5.
Zemu
: Manas
Which of
the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and
4
b) 1, 3 and
4
c) 2 and 5
d) 3 and 5
Ans: A
19.) In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
a)
pesticides in agriculture
b)
preservatives in processed foods
c)
fruit-ripening agents
d)
moisturising agents in cosmetics
Ans: A
20.) Consider the following statements :
1.
Under
Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to
protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3.
The
Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage
area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: C
21.)
Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction
in the kingdom of
a) Chalukya
b) Chandela
c)
Rashtrakuta
d)
Vijayanagara
Ans: D
22.)
Consider the following statements:
1.
In
the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue
collection was known as ‘Amil’.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3.
The
office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans
of Delhi.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
23.)
Consider the following statements:
1.
Saint
Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
2.
Saint
Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1
and 2
d) Neither 1
nor 2
Ans: D
24.) With
reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.
2.
In
Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the
resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3.
Consequent
upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress
was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
Which of
the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: B
25.)
With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:
Person
Position
held
1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru : President, All India Liberal Federation
2.
K.C. Neogy
:
Member, the Constituent Assembly
3.
P.C. Joshi
:
General Secretary, Communist Party of India
Which of
the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: D
26.)
With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not
correct?
a) Tansen
was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar
b) Tansen
composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
d) Tansen
invented many Ragas.
Ans: A
27.) Who
among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated
manuscripts to album and individual portrait?
a) Humayun
b) Akbar
c) Jahangir
d) Shah
Jahan
Ans: C
28.)
Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate
alpine zone?
a) Manas National Park
b) Namdapha
National Park
c) Neora
Valley National Park
d) Valley of
Flowers National Park
Ans: D
29.) Atal
Innovation Mission is set up under the
a)
Department of Science and Technology
b) Ministry of Labour and Employment
c) NITI
Aayog
d) Ministry
of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Ans: C
30.) On
21st June, the Sun
a) does not
set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
c) shines
vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
d) shines
vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Ans: A
31.) With
reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between
Jagirdar and Zamindar?
1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2.
Land
assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were
not hereditary.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1
and 2
d) Neither 1
nor 2
Ans: A
32.) With
reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following
statements is correct?
a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
b) The major
aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
c) It
resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
d) Land
reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
Ans: B
33.) The
Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
a) International Monetary Fund
b) United
Nations Conference on Trade and Development
c) World
Economic Forum
d) World
Bank
Ans: C
34.)
Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2.
It
asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held
by the Company.
3.
The
revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
Which of
the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: A
35.) With
reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:
1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2.
The
National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1
nor 2
Ans: C
36.)
Consider the following pairs:
Movement/Organization
Leader
1. All India Anti-Untouchability League : Mahatma Gandhi
2.
All India Kisan Sabha
: Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3.
Self-Respect Movement
:
E.V. Ramaswami Naicker
Which of
the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
only
c) 2 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
37.)
Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
a)
Chanhudaro
b) Kot Diji
c) Sohgaura
d) Desalpur
Ans: C
38.) In
which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashokan’ (King
Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
a)
Kanganahalli
b) Sanchi
c)
Shahbazgarhi
d) Sohgaura
Ans: A
39.)
Consider the following:
1.
Deification
of the Buddha
2.
Treading
the path of Bodhisattvas
3. Image worship and rituals
Which of
the above is/are the feature/features of Mahayana Buddhism?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
only
c) 2 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: D
40.) With
reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one
of the following statements is correct?
a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
b) It was
totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
c) The
forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
d) The
eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
Ans: A
41.)
Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’
and introduced into the ‘Old World’?
a) Tobacco,
cocoa and rubber
b) Tobacco,
cotton and rubber
c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
d) Rubber,
coffee and wheat
Ans: A
42.)
Consider the following statements:
1.
Asiatic
lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3.
One-horned
rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
43.)
Consider the following pairs:
Famous place
River
1.
Pandharpur
:
Chandrabhaga
2. Tiruchirappalli : Cauvery
3.
Hampi
:
Malaprabha
Which of
the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: A
44.) In a
given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in
others because
a) poverty
rates vary from State to State
b) price
levels vary from State to State
c) Gross State Product varies from State to State
d) quality
of public distribution varies from State to State
Ans: B
45.) In
the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of
cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into
stratosphere?
a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
b) Reducing
the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
c) Reducing
the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
d) Reducing
the global warming
Ans: D
46.) In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?
a)
Extraction of rare earth elements
b) Natural
gas extraction technologies
c) Hydrogen
fuel-based automobiles
d)
Waste-to-energy technologies
Ans: D
47.)
Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
a) Neyyar,
Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger
Reserve
b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
c)
Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi
National Park
d) Kawal and
Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger
Reserve
Ans: A
48.)
Consider the following statements:
1.
Some
species of turtles are herbivores.
2.
Some
species of fish are herbivores.
3.
Some
species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4.
Some
species of snakes are viviparous.
Which of
the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and
4 only
c) 2 and 4
only
d) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: D
49.)
Consider the following pairs:
Wildlife
Naturally found in
1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River
2.
Irrawaddy Dolphin :
Chambal River
3.
Rusty-spotted Cat
: Eastern Ghats
Which of
the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: C
50.) Why
is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into
environment?
a) They are
considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
c) They are
small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
d) They are
often found to be used as food adulterants.
Ans: A
51.) In
the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following
statements:
1.
In
Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical
world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected into real-life objects or surroundings.
3.
AR
allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using
the camera of smart-phone or PC.
4.
VR
closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion
experience.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and
3
d) 4 only
Ans: B
52.) The
word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to
a) Fossils of a kind of dinosaurs
b) An early
human species
c) A
cave system found in North-East India
d) A
geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent
Ans: B
53.) With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?
a)
Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from
cells of different species.
b) Pieces of
artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
d) Cells
taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in
laboratory petri dishes.
Ans: A
54.)
Consider the following statements:
A digital
signature is
1.
an
electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet
3.
an
electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the
original content is unchanged
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: C
55.) In
the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are
accomplished by wearable devices?
1.
Location
identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3.
Assisting
the hearing impaired person
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
56.) ‘RNA
interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years.
Why?
1.
It
is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
2.
It
can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4.
It
can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and
4
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 and 4 only
Ans: A
57.)
Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of
light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
a) ‘Higgs
boson particles’ were detected.
b)
‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
c) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
d) It
enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.
Ans: B
58.)
Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug
resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1. Genetic
predisposition of some people
2. Taking
incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
4.
Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2
and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and
4
d) 2,
3 and 4
Ans: D
59.) What
is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?
a) A
molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
b) A
biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients
c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
d) A
herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops
Ans: A
60.)
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a) Hepatitis
B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
c)
Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are
several times more than those infected with HIV.
d) Some of
those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many
years.
Ans: B
61.) With
reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2.
An
amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the
Supreme Court of India.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1
nor 2
Ans: D
62.)
Consider the following statements:
1.
Purchasing
Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the
same basket of goods and services in different countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1
and 2
d) Neither 1
nor 2
Ans: A
63.) With
reference to the cultivation of Kharif crop in India in the last five years,
consider the following statements:
1. Area
under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area
under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area
under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Which of
the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3
only
b) 2, 3 and
4 only
c) 2 and 4
only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: A
64.)
Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the
following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five
years?
a) Spices
b) Fresh
fruits
c) Pulses
d) Vegetable
oils
Ans: D
65.) In
the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most
appropriate definition of liberty?
a)
Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
b) Absence of restraint
c)
Opportunity to do whatever one likes
d)
Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Ans: D
66.)
Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI
takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
b)
Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds
c) Easing
conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
d) Following
an expansionary monetary policy
Ans: D
67.)
Consider the following statements:
The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that
1.
they
shall ensure that entire date relating to payment systems operated by them are
stored in a system only in India
2.
they
shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector
enterprises
3.
they
shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: A
68.)
Which of the following adopted a law on data
protection and privacy for its citizens known as
‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation
of it from 25th May, 2018?
a) Australia
b) Canada
c) The
European Union
d) The
United States of America
Ans: C
69.) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?
a)
Japan
b)
Russia
c) The
United Kingdom
d) The
United States of America
Ans: B
70.) The
money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
a) Increase
in the cash reserve ratio
b) Increase
in the banking habit of the population
c) Increase
in the statutory liquidity ratio
d) Increase in the population of the country
Ans: B
71.) The
Services Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
a)
Integrated Rural Development Programme
b) Lead Bank Scheme
c) Mahatma
Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
d) National
Skill Development Mission
Ans: B
72.) With
reference to the management of minor minerals in India consider the following
statements:
1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in country.
2.
State
Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the
powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals
lie with the Central Government.
3.
State
Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor
minerals.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: A
73.)
Consider the following statements:
1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2.
All
of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1
and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: D
74.)
Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in
India?
a) Advances
b) Deposits
c) Investments
d) Money at
call and short notice
Ans: B
75.) In
the context of India, which of the following factors is/are
contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
1. The
foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector
2. Increasing the government expenditure
3. Remittances
from Indians abroad
Select
the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3
only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
76.) Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
a) First
Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
b) Rajamannar
Committee (1969)
c)
Sarkaria Commission (1983)
d) National
Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Ans: C
77.)
Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to
overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without
registering themselves directly?
a)
Certificate of Deposit
b)
Commercial Paper
c) Promissory Note
d) Participatory
Note
Ans: D
78.)
Consider the following statements:
1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2.
People’s
participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried
out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1
and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
79.) In
India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like
telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary
Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance
Commission
4.
Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5.
NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1,
3 and 4
c) 3, 4 and
5
d) 2
and 5
Ans: A
80.) With
reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1.
From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards
substitution of basic and capital good industries.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. In
the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included
as an integral part of the Plan.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: A
81.) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India :
1. PVTGs
reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A
stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG
status.
3. There
are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi Tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of
the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2 and
3
b) 2, 3 and
4
c) 1, 2 and
4
d) 1, 3 and
4
Ans: C
82.) With reference to the Constitution
of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws
cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under
Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
a) The
decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its
duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
c) In
the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can
declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
d) State
legislatures cannot make law on certain matters without the concurrence of
Union Legislature.
Ans: B
83.) With
reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the
following statements:
1. The
governor makes a customary address to members of the house at the commencement
of the first session of the year.
2. When
a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the
Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1
and 2
d) Neither 1
nor 2
Ans: C
84.)
Consider the following statements:
1. The
United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against
the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air.
2. The
UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4. The
United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member
States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
Which of
the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3
only
b) 2, 3 and
4 only
c) 2 and 4
only
d) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: C
85.)
Consider the following statements:
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As
per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The
Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce
to forest dwellers.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 3
only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: D
86.)
Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the
person of one’s choice?
a) Article 19
b) Article
21
c) Article
25
d) Article
29
Ans: B
87.)
Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In
India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant
varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1
and 3 only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 3
only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
88.)
Consider the following statements :
The
Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to
1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the Procedure and manner in which it sought
2. lay
down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from
various sources
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2
only
c) Both 1
and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
89.) As
per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following
statements is correct?
a) Waste
generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
b) The Rules
are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all
industrial townships only.
c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
d) It is
mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one
district cannot be moved to another district.
Ans: C
90.)
Consider the following statements :
As per the
Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018
1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for
the firms/companies to lay off workers
2. no notice
of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary
workman
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1
and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
91.) With
reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the
following statements :
1. AIIB
has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB
does not have any members from outside Asia.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
92.) What
was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement
signed by Indian banks and financial institutions
recently?
a) To lessen
the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current
account deficit
b) To support the infrastructure Projects of Central and State Governments
c) To act as
independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more
d) To aim at
faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under
consortium lending
Ans: D
93.) The
Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the
a) Banks
Board Bureau
b) Reserve Bank of India
c) Union
Ministry of Finance
d)
Management of concerned bank
Ans: A
94.)
Consider the following statements :
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One
of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals
against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for
Electricity.
Which of
the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3
only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: B
95.) With
reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/
differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term
Evolution)?
1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE
is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2
only
c) Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: D
96.)
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity
Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
1. Pregnant
women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery
paid leave.
2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily.
3. Women
with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: C
97.)
Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s “Ease of
Doing Business Index”?
a) Maintenance of law and order
b) Paying
taxes
c)
Registering property
d) Dealing
with construction permits
Ans: A
98.) In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
a) The
Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
b) The
Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
c) The
e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
d) The
Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011
Ans: C
99.) The
economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum
Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
a)
Transportation cost only
b) Interest cost only
c)
Procurement incidentals and distribution cost
d)
Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns
Ans: C
100.)
In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered
as part of its social capitals?
a) The
proportion of literates in the population
b) The
stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
c) The size of population in the working age group
d) The
level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
Ans: D
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