Directions
for the following 8 (eight) Items:
Read the
following eight passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your
answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
What climate change will undeniably do is cause or amplify events that hasten the reduction of resources. Competition over these diminishing resources would ensue in the form of political or even violent conflict. Resource-based conflicts have rarely been overt and are thus difficult to isolate. Instead they take on veneers that appear more politically palatable.
Conflicts over resources like water are
often cloaked in the guise of identity or ideology.
1. What
does the above passage imply?
(a)
Resource-based conflicts are always politically motivated.
(b) There are no political solutions to resolve environmental and resource-based conflicts.
(c)
Environmental issues contribute to resource stresses and political conflict.
(d)
Political conflict based on identity or ideology cannot be resolved.
Ans: C
Passage-2
The man who is perpetually hesitating which of the two things he will do first, will do neither. The man who resolves, but suffers his resolution to be changed by the first counter-suggestion of a friend-who fluctuates from opinion to opinion and veers from plan to plan can never accomplish
anything. He will at best be
stationary and probably retrograde in all. It is only the man who first
consults wisely, then resolves firmly and then executes his purpose with
inflexible perseverance, undismayed by those petty difficulties which daunt a
weaker spirit-that can advance to eminence in any line.
2. The
keynote that seems to be emerging from the passage is that
(a) we should first consult wisely and then resolve firmly
(b) we
should reject suggestions of friends and remain unchanged
(c) we
should always remain broad-minded
(d) we
should be resolute and achievement-oriented
Ans: A
Passage-3
During the summer in the Arctic Ocean, sea ice has been melting earlier and faster, and the winter freeze has been coming later. In the last three decades, the extent of summer ice has declined by about 30 per cent. The lengthening
period of
summer melt threatens to undermine the whole Arctic food web, atop which stand polar
bears.
3. Which
among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?
(a) Climate
change has caused Arctic summer to be short but
temperature
to be high.
(b) Polar bears can be shifted to South Pole to ensure their survival
(c) Without
the presence of polar bears, the food chains in Arctic
region will
disappear.
(d) Climate
change poses a threat to the survival of polar bears.
Ans: D
Passage-4
Why do people prefer open defecation and not want toilets or, if they have them, only use them sometimes? Recent research has shown two critical elements: ideas of purity and pollution, and not wanting pits or septic tanks to
fill because they
have to be emptied. These are the issues that nobody wants to talk about, but
if we want to eradicate the practice of open defecation, they have to be
confronted and dealt properly
4. Which
among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?
(a) The ideas of purity and pollution are so deep-rooted that they cannot be removed from the minds of the people.
(b) People
have to perceive toilet use and pit-emptying as clean and not polluting
(c) People
cannot change their old habits.
(d) People
have neither civic sense nor sense of privacy.
Ans: B
Passage-5
In the last two decades, the world's gross domestic product (GDP) has increased by 50 per cent, whereas inclusive wealth has increased by a mere 6 per cent. In recent decades, GDP-driven economic performance has only harmed inclusive wealth like human capital; and natural capital like forests, land and water. While the world's human capital which stands at 57 per cent
of total inclusive wealth grew by only 8
per cent, the natural capital which is 23 per cent of total inclusive wealth
declined by 30 per cent worldwide in the last two decades.
5. Which
of the following is the most crucial inference from the above passage?
(a) More emphasis should be laid on the development of natural capital.
(b) The
growth driven by GDP only is neither desirable nor sustainable.
(c) The
economic performance of the countries of the world is not
satisfactory.
(d) The
world needs more human capital under the present circumstances.
Ans: B
Passage 6
By 2020, when the global economy is expected to run short of 56 million young people, India, with its youth surplus of 47 million, could fill the gap. It is in this context that labour reforms are often cited as the way to unlock double-digit growth in India. In 2014, India's labour force was estimated to be about 40 per cent of the population, but 93 per cent of this force was in unorganized sector. Over the last decade, the compound annual growth rate
(CAGR) of
employment has slowed to 0-5 per cent, with about 14 million jobs created during
last year when the labour force increased by about 15 million.
6. Which
of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?
(a) India
must control its population growth so as to reduce its unemployment rate.
(b) Labour reforms are required in India to make optimum use of its vast labour force productively.
(c) India is
poised to achieve the double-digit growth very soon.
(4) India is
capable of supplying the skilled young people to other countries.
Ans: B
Passage-7
The very first lesson that should be taught to us when we are old enough to understand it, is that complete freedom from the obligation to work is unnatural, and ought to be illegal, as we can escape our share of the burden of
work only by
throwing it on someone else's shoulders. Nature ordains that the human race shall
perish of famine if it stops working. We cannot escape from this tyranny. The
question we have to settle is how much leisure we can afford to allow
ourselves.
7. The
main idea of the passage is that
(a) it is
essential for human beings to work
(b) there should be a balance between work and leisure
(c) working
is a tyranny which we have to face
(d) human's
understanding of the nature of work is essential
Ans: A
Passage-8
There is no harm in cultivating habits so long as they are not injurious. Indeed, most of us are little more than bundle of habits. Take away our habits
and the residuum
would hardly be worth bothering about. We could not get on without them. They
simplify the mechanism of life. They enable us to do a multitude of things automatically,
which, if we had to give fresh and original thought to them each time, would make
existence an impossible confusion.
8. The
author suggests that habits
(a) tend to make our lives difficult
(b) add
precision to our lives
(c) make it
easier for us to live
(d) tend to
mechanize our lives
Ans: C
Directions for the following 2 (two) Items:
Consider
the given information and answer the two items that follow.
No
supporters of 'party X, who knew Z and supported his campaign strategy, agreed
for the alliance with 'party Y; but some of them had friends in 'party Y
9. With reference to the above information, which one among the following statements must be true?
(a) Some
supporters of party y did not agree for the alliance with the 'party X'.
(b) There is
at least one supporter of 'party y' who knew some supporters of party X as a
friend.
(c) No
supporters of party X supported Z's campaign strategy.
(d) No
supporters of 'party X' knew Z.
Ans: B
10. With
reference to the above information, consider the following statements:
1. Some
supporters of party X' knew Z.
2. Some
supporters of 'party X', who opposed Z's campaign strategy knew Z.
3. No supporters of 'party X" supported Z's campaign strategy.
Which of
the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: C
11. If
second and fourth Saturdays and all the Sundays are taken as only holidays for
an office, what would be the minimum number of possible working days of any
month of any year?
(a) 23
(b) 22
(c) 21
(d) 20
Ans: B
12. If there is a policy that 1/3rd of a population of a community has migrated every year from one place to some other place, what is the leftover population of that community after the sixth year, if there is no
further growth in the
population during this period?
(a) 16/243rd
part of the population
(b) 32/243rd
part of the population
(c) 32/729th
part of the population
(d) 64/729th
part of the population
Ans: D
13. Four tests - Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology are to be conducted on four consecutive days, not necessarily in the same order. The Physics test is held before the test which is conducted after Biology. Chemistry is conducted exactly after two tests are held. Which is the last test held?
(a) Physics
(b) Biology
(c)
Mathematics
(d)
Chemistry
Ans: C
14. The sum of income of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of income of A and C is the same as that of B and D
taken together. Moreover, A
earns half as much as the sum of the income of B and D. Whose income is the
highest?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans: B
15.
Consider the following Statement:
Good voice
is a natural gift but one has to keep practising to improve and excel well in
the field of music.
Conclusions:
1. Natural
gifts need nurturing and care.
II. Even though one's voice is not good, one can keep practising.
Which one
of the following is correct in respect of the above statement and conclusions?
(a) Only
conclusion I follows from the statement.
(b) Only
conclusion II follows from the statement.
(c) Either
conclusion 1 or conclusion II follows from the statement.
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II allows from the
statement.
Ans: A
16. There are three pillars X, Y and Z of different heights. Three spiders A, B and C start to climb on these pillars simultaneously. In one chance, A climbs on X by 6 cm but slips down 1 cm. B climbs on Y by 7 cm but slips down 3
cm. C climbs on Z by 6.5 cm but slips down 2 cm. If each of
them requires 40 chances to reach the top of the pillars, what is the height of
the shortest pillar?
(a) 161 cm
(b) 163 cm
(c) 182 cm
(d) 210 cm
Ans: B
17. "Rights are certain
advantageous conditions of social well-being Indispensable to the true
development of the citizen."
In the
light of this statement, which one of the following is the correct
understanding of rights?
(a) Rights aim at individual good only.
(b) Rights
aim at social good only.
(c) Rights
aim at both individual and social good.
(d) Rights
aim at individual good devoid of social well-being.
Ans: C
18. 15 students failed in a class of 52. After removing the names of failed students, a merit order list has been prepared in which the position of
Ramesh is 22nd
from the top. What is his position from the bottom?
(a) 18th
(b) 17th
(c) 16th
(d) 15th
Ans: C
19.
Consider the following:
A+B means A
is the son of B.
A-B means A
is the wife of B
What does
the expression P+R-Q mean?
(a) Q is the
son of P.
(b) Q is the
wife of P.
(c) Q is the father of P
(d) None of
the above
Ans: C
20. Gocal bought a cell phone and sold it to Ram at 10% profit. Then Ram wanted to sell it back to Gopal at 10% loss. What will be Gopal's
position if he agreed?
(a) Neither
loss nor gain
(b) Loss 1%
(c) Gain 1%
(d) Gain
0.5%
Ans: C
Directions
for the following 7 (seven) Items:
Read the
following seven passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers
to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
We have hard work ahead. There is no resting for any of us till we redeem our pledge in full, till we make all the people of India what destiny intends them to be. We are citizens of a great country, on the verge of bold advance, and we
have to live
up to that high standard. All of us, to whatever religion we may belong. are
equally the children of India with equal rights, privileges and obligations. We
cannot encourage communalism or narrow-mindedness, for no nation can be great
whose people are narrow in thought or action.
21. The challenge the author of the above passage throws to the public is to achieve
(a) a high
standard of living, progress and privileges
(b) equal
privileges, fulfilment of destiny and political tolerance
(c) spirit
of adventure and economic parity
(d) hard work,
brotherhood and national unity
Ans: D
Passage-2
"The
individual, according to Rousseau, puts his person and all his power in common
under the supreme direction of the General Will and in our corporate capacity
we receive each member as an indivisible part of the whole."
22. In
the light of the above passage, the nature of General Will is best described as
(a) the sum total of the private wills of the individuals
(b) what is
articulated by the elected representatives of the individuals
(c) the
collective good as distinct from private wills of the individuals
(d) the
material interests of the community
Ans: C
Passage-3
In a
democratic State, where a high degree of political maturity of the people
obtains, the conflict between the will of the sovereign law-making body and the
organized will of the people seldom occurs.
23. What
does the above passage imply?
(a) In a democracy, force is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty.
(b) In a
mature democracy, force to a great extent is the main phenomenon in the actual
exercise of sovereignty.
(c) In a
mature democracy, use of force is irrelevant in the actual exercise of
sovereignty.
(4) In a mature democracy, force is narrowed down to a marginal phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty.
Ans: D
Passage-4
A successful democracy depends upon widespread interest and participation in politics, in which voting is an essential part. To deliberately refrain from taking such an interest, and from voting, is a kind of implied anarchy; it is to
refuse one's political responsibility
while enjoying the benefits of a free political society.
24. This
passage relates to
(a) duty to
vote
(b) right to
vote
(c) freedom to vote
(d) right to
participate in politics
Ans: A
Passage-5
In a free country, the man who reaches the position of leader is usually one of outstanding character and ability. Moreover, it is usually possible to foresee that he will reach such a position, since early in life one can see his qualities of character. But this is not always true in the case of a dictator; often he
reaches his position of power through chance, very often through the unhappy
state of his country.
25. The
passage seems to suggest that
(a) a leader
foresees his future position
(b) a leader
is chosen only by a free country
(e) a leader must see that his country is free from despair
(d) despair
in a country sometimes leads to dictatorship
Ans: D
Passage-6
The greatest blessing that technological progress has in store for mankind is not, of course, an accumulation of material possessions. The amount of these that can be effectively enjoyed by one individual in one lifetime is not great. But there is not the same narrow limit to the possibilities of the enjoyment of leisure. The gift of leisure may be abused by people who have had no
experience
of making use of it. Yet the creative use of leisure by a minority in societies
has been the mainspring of all human progress beyond the primitive level.
26. With
reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. People always see the leisure time as a gift and use it for acquiring more material possessions.
2. Use of
leisure by some people to produce new and original things has been the chief
source of human progress.
Which of
these assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1
and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
Passage-7
There is more than a modicum of truth in the assertion that a working knowledge of ancient history is necessary in the intelligent interpretation of current events". But the sage who uttered these words of wisdom might well have added something on the benefits of studying particularly the famous battles of history for the lessons they contain for those of us who lead or aspire to leadership. Such a study will reveal certain qualities and attributes
which enabled the winners to
win-and certain deficiencies which caused the losers to lose. And the student
will see that the same pattern recurs consistently, again and again, throughout
the centuries.
27. With
reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. A study of the famous battles of history would help us understand the modern warfare.
2. Studying
the history is essential for anyone who aspires to be a leader.
Which of
these assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1
and 2
(d) Neither
1 nor 2
Ans: D
28.
Suppose the average weight of 9 persons is 50 kg. The average weight of the
first 5 persons is 45 kg, whereas the average weight of the last 5 persons is
55 kg. Then the weight of the 5th person will be
(a) 45 kg
(b) 47.5 kg
k) 50 kg
(d) 52.5 kg
Ans: C
29. In a group of six women, there are four tennis players, four postgraduates in Sociology, one postgraduate in Commerce and three bank employees. Vimala and Kamla are the bank employees while Amala and Komala are unemployed. Komala and Nirmala are among the tennis players. Amala,
Kamla, Kumala and Nirmala are postgraduates in Sociology of whom two are
bank employees. If Shyamala is a postgraduate in Commerce, who among the
following is both a tennis player and a bank employee?
(a) Amala
(b) Komala
(c) Nirmala
(d) Shyamala
Ans: C
30. P = (40% of A) + (65% of B) and Q = (50% of A) + (50% of B), where A is greater than B
In this
context, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) P is
greater than Q
(b) Q is
greater than P.
(c) P is
equal to Q
(d) None of
the above can be concluded with certainty.
Ans: D
31. A
watch loses 2 minutes in every 24 hours while another watch gains 2 minutes in
every 24 hours. At a particular instant, the two watches showed an identical
time. Which of the following statements is correct if 24-hour clock is
followed?
(a) The two
watches show the identical time again on completion of 30 days.
(b) The two
watches show the identical time again on completion
of 90 days.
(c) The two
watches show the identical time again on completion
of 120 days.
(d) None of
the above statements is correct
Ans: D
32. In a city, 12% of households earn less than 30,000 rupees per year, 6% households earn more than 2,00,000 rupees per year, 22% households earn more than 1,00,000 rupees per year and 990 house-holds earn between 30,000
rupees and 1,00,000 rupees per year. How many households
earn between 1,00,000 rupees and 2,00,000 rupees per year?
(a) 250
(b) 240
(c) 230
(d) 225
Ans: B
33. A
clock strikes once at 1 o'clock, twice at 2 o'clock and thrice at 3 o'clock,
and so on. If it takes 12 seconds to strike at 5 o'clock, what is the time
taken by it to strike at 10 o'clock?
(a) 20
seconds
(b) 24
seconds
(c) 28 seconds
(d) 30
seconds
Ans: B
34.
Consider the given statement and the two conclusions that follow
Statement: Morning walk is good for health.
Conclusions:
1. All
healthy people go for morning walk.
2. Morning
walk is essential for maintaining good health.
What
is/are the valid conclusion/conclusions?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1
and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: D
35. There
are thirteen 2-digit consecutive odd numbers. If 39 is the mean of the first
five such numbers, then what is the mean of all the thirteen numbers?
(a) 47
(b) 49
(c) 51
(d) 45
Ans: A
36. Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F play a game of cards. Each has a pack of 10 cards. F borrows 2 cards from A and gives away 5 to C who in turn gives 3 to B while gives 6 to D who passes on 1 to E. Then the number of cards
possessed by D and E is equal to the number of cards
possessed by
(a) A, B and
C
(b) B, C and
F
(e) A, B and
F
(d) A, C and
F
Ans: B
37. There is a milk sample with 50% water in it. If 1/3rd of this milk is
added to equal amount
of pure milk, then water in the new mixture will fall down to
(a) 25%
(b) 30%
(c) 35%
(d) 40%
Ans: A
38. There are 4 horizontal and 4 vertical lines, parallel and equidistant to
one another
on a board. What is the maximum number of rectangles and squares that can be
formed?
(a) 16
(b) 24
(c) 36
(d) 42
Ans: C
39. A freight train left Delhi for Mumbai at an average speed of 40 km/hr. Two hours later, an express train left Delhi for Mumbai, following the freight
train on a parallel track at an average
speed of 60 km/hr. How far from Delhi would the express train meet the freight
train?
(n) 480 km
(b) 260 km
(c) 240 km
(d) 120 km
Ans: C
40. In a test, Randhir obtained more marks than the total marks obtained by Kunal and Debu. The total marks obtained by Kunal and Shankar are more
than those of Randhir. Sonal obtained more marks than
Shankar. Neha obtained more marks than Randhir. Who amongst them obtained
highest marks?
(a) Randhir
(b) Neha
(c) Sonal
(d) Data are
inadequate
Ans: D
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:
Read the
following seven passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers
to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
Disruption of traditional institutions, identifications and loyalties is likely to lead to ambivalent situations. It is possible that some people may renew their identification with traditional groups whereas others align themselves with new groups and symbols emergent from processes of political development.
In
addition, political development tends to foster group awareness of a variety of
class, tribe, region, clan, language, religion, occupation and others.
41. Which
one of the following is the best explanation of the above passage?
(a)
Political development is not a unilinear process for it involves
both growth and decay.
(b)
Traditional societies succeed in resisting positive aspects of
political
development.
(c) It is
impossible for traditional societies to break away from lingering loyalties.
(d)
Sustenance of traditional loyalties is conducive to political development.
Ans: A
Passage-2
There has been a significant trend worldwide towards regionalism in
government, resulting in a widespread transfer of powers downwards towards regions and communities since 1990s. This process, which involves the creation of new political entities and bodies at a sub-national level and an increase in their content and powers, is known as devolution. Devolution has been characterized as being made up of three factors-political legitimacy, decentralization of authority and decentralization of resources. Political legitimacy here means a mass demand from below for the decentralization process, which is able to create a political force for it to take place. In many cases, decentralization is initiated by the upper tier of government without
sufficient political mobilization for
it at the grassroots level, and in such cases the decentralization process
often does not fulfil its objectives.
42. Which
among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that
can be made from the above passage?
(a) Emergence of powerful mass leaders is essential to create sub-national political entities and thus ensure successful devolution and decentralization.
(b) The
upper tier of government should impose devolution and
decentralization
on the regional communities by law or otherwise.
(c) Devolution, to be successful, requires a democracy in which there is free expression of the will of the people at lower level and their active participation at the grassroots level.
(d) For
devolution to take place, a strong feeling of regionalism in the masses is
essential.
Ans: C
Passage-3
We live in digital times. The digital is not just something we use strategically and specifically to do a few tasks. Our very perception of who we are, how we connect to the world around us, and the ways in which we define our domains of life, labour and language are hugely structured by the digital technologies. The digital is everywhere and, like air, invisible. We live within
digital systems,
we live with intimate gadgets, we interact through digital media, and the very
presence and imagination of the digital has dramatically restructured our
lives. The digital, far from being a tool, is a condition and contest that
defines the shapes and boundaries of our understanding of the self, the
society, and the structure of governance.
43. Which
among the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the
above passage?
(a) All
problems of governance can be solved by using digital technologies.
(b) Speaking
of digital technologies is speaking of our life and living.
(c) Our creativity and imagination cannot be expressed without digital media.
(d) Use of
digital systems is imperative for the existence of mankind in future.
Ans: B
Passage-4
The IMF has pointed out that the fast growing economies of Asia face the risk of falling into 'middle-income trap. It means that average incomes in these countries, which till now have been growing rapidly, will stop growing beyond a point-a point that is well short of incomes in the developed West.
The IMP identifies a
number of causes of middle-income trap-none of which is surprising from
infrastructure to weak institutions, to less than favourable macroeconomic
conditions. But the broad, overall cause, says IMF, is a collapse in the growth
of productivity.
44. Which
among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that
can be made from the above passage?
(a) Once a country reaches middle-income stage, it runs the risk of falling productivity which leads to stagnant incomes.
(b) Falling
into middle-income trap is a general characteristic of fast growing economies.
(c) There is
no hope at all for emerging Avian economies to sustain the growth momentum.
(d) As
regards growth of productivity, the performance of Asian economies is not
satisfactory.
Ans: A
Passage-5
An innovative India will be inclusive as well as technologically advanced, improving the lives of all Indians. Innovation and R&D can mitigate increases in social inequality and relieve the pressures created by rapid urbanization. The growing divergence in productivity between agriculture and knowledge-intensive manufacturing and services threatens to increase Income inequality. By encouraging India's R&D labs and universities to focus on the needs of poor people and by improving the ability of informal firms to absorb
knowledge, an innovation
and research agenda can counter this effect. Inclusive innovation can lower the
costs of goods and services and create income earning opportunities for the
poor people.
45. Which
among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be
made from the above passage?
(a)
Innovation and R&D is the only way to reduce rural to urban migration.
(b) Every rapidly growing country needs to minimize the divergence between productivity in agriculture and other sectors.
(c)
Inclusive innovation and R&D can help create an egalitarian society.
(d) Rapid
urbanization takes place only when a country's economic growth is rapid.
Ans: C
Passage-6
Climate change is likely to expose a large number of people to increasing environmental risks forcing them to migrate. The international community is yet to recognize this new category of migrants. There is no consensus on the definition and status of climate refugees owing to the distinct meaning the
term refugees
carry under international laws. There are still gaps in understanding how
climate change will work as the root cause of migration. Even if there is recognition
of climate refugees, who is going to provide protection? More emphasis has been
given to international migration due to climate change. But there is a need to
recognize the migration of such people within the countries also so that their
problems can be addressed properly.
46. Which
of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?
(a) The
world will not be able to cope with large-scale migration of climate refugees.
(b) We must
find the ways and means to stop further climate change.
(c) Climate change will be the most important reason for the migration of people in the future.
(d) Relation
between climate change and migration is not yet property understood.
Ans: D
Passage-7
Many farmers use synthetic pesticides to kill infesting insects. The consumption of pesticides in some of the developed countries is touching 3000 grams/hectare. Unfortunately, there are reports that these compounds possess inherent toxicities that endanger the health of the farm operators, consumers and the environment. Synthetic pesticides are generally persistent
in environment. Entering in food chain they destroy the microbial diversity and cause ecological imbalance. Their indiscriminate use has resulted in development of resistance among insects to insecticides, upsetting of balance in nature and resurgence of treated populations. Natural pest control using the botanical pesticides is safer to the user and the environment because they break down into harmless compounds within hours or days in the presence of sunlight. Plants with pesticidal properties have been in nature for millions of years without any ill or adverse effects on the ecosystem. They are easily decomposed by many microbes common in most soils. They help in the
maintenance of biological diversity of predators and the reduction of
environmental contamination and human health hazards. Botanical pesticides
formulated from plants are biodegradable and their use in crop protection is a
practical sustainable alternative.
47. On
the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Synthetic
pesticides should never be used in modern agriculture.
2. One of the aims of sustainable agriculture is to ensure minimal ecological imbalance.
3. Botanical
pesticides are more effective as compared to synthetic pesticides.
Which of
the assumptions given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
only
(d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: B
48. Which
of the following statements is/are correct regarding biopesticides?
1. They are
not hazardous to human health.
2. They are
persistent in environment.
3. They are
essential to maintain the biodiversity of any ecosystem.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
only
(d) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: A
49.
Certain 3-digit numbers have the following characteristics:
1. All the
three digits are different.
2. The
number is divisible by 7.
3. The number on reversing the digits is also divisible by 7.
How many
such 3-digit numbers are there?
(a) 2
(b) 4
c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: B
50.
Examine the following statements:
1. All colours are pleasant.
2. Some
colours are pleasant.
3. No colour
is pleasant.
4. Some
colours are not pleasant.
Given
that statement 4 is true, what can be definitely concluded?
(c) 1 and 2
are true.
(b) 3 is
true.
(c) 2 is false.
(d) 1 is
false.
Ans: D
51. How
many numbers are there between 99 and 1000 such that the digit 8 occupies the
units place?
(a) 64
(b) 80
(c) 90
d) 104
Ans: C
52. If
for a sample data
Mean <
Median < Mode
then the
distribution is
(a)
symmetric
(b) skewed
to the right
(c) neither
symmetric nor skewed
(d) skewed
to the left
Ans: D
53. The
age of Mr. X last year was the square of a number and it would be the cube of a
number next year. What is the least number of years he must wait for his age to
become the cube of a number again?
(a) 42
(b) 38
(c) 25
(d) 16
Ans: B
54. P
works thrice as fast as Q, whereas P and Q together can work four times as fast
as R. If P, Qand R together work on a job, in what ratio should they share the
earnings?
(a) 3:1:1
(b) 3:2:4
(c) 4:3:4
(d) 3:1:4
Ans: A
55.
Consider the following relationships among members of a family of six persons
A, B, C, D, E and F:
1. The
number of males equals that of females.
2. A and E
are sons of F
3. D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl.
4. B is the
son of A.
5. There is
only one married couple in the family at present.
Which one
of the following inferences can be drawn from the above?
(a) A, B and
C are all females.
(b) A is the
husband of D.
(c) E and F
are children of D.
(d) D is the
daughter of F
Ans: B
56. A bag
contains 20 balls. 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the
minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blindfolded
(without replacing any of it) to be assured of picking at least one ball of
each colour?
(a) 17
(b) 16
(c) 13
(d) 11
Ans: B
57. If 2
boys and 2 girls are to be arranged in a row so that the girls are not next to
each other, how many possible arrangements are there?
(a) 3
(b) 6
c) 12
(d) 24
Ans: C
58. The outer surface of a 4 cm x 4 cm x 4 cm cube is painted completely in red. It is sliced parallel to the faces to yield sixty four 1 cm x 1 cm x 1
cm small
cubes. How many small cubes do not have painted faces?
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 24
(d) 36
Ans: A
59.
Consider the following:
A, B, C, D,
E, F, G and H are standing in a row facing North.
B is not neighbour of G
F is to the
immediate right of G and neighbour of E
G is not at
the extreme end.
A is sixth
to the left of E.
H is sixth
to the right of C
Which one
of the following is correct in respect of the above?
(a) C is to the immediate left of A.
(b) D is
immediate neighbour of B and F.
(c) G is to
the immediate right of D.
(d) A and E
are at the extreme ends.
Ans: C
60. In a certain code, '256' means 'red colour chalk', '589' means 'green
colour flower'
and "254" means white colour chalk The digit in the code that
indicates 'white' is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 8
Ans: B
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items:
Read the
following seven passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your
answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
An air quality index (AQI) is a way to combine measurements of multiple air pollutants into a single number or rating. This index is ideally kept constantly updated and available in different places. The AQI is most useful when lots of pollution data are being gathered and when pollution levels are normally, but not always, low. In such cases, if pollution levels spike for a few days, the
public can quickly take preventive action (like staying indoors) in response to
an air quality warning. Unfortunately, that is not urban India. Pollution
levels in many large Indian cities are so high that they remain well above any
health or regulatory standard for large part of the year. If our index stays in
the Red/Dangerous' region day after day, there is not much any one can do,
other than getting used to ignoring it.
61. Which
among the following is the most logical and rational Inference that can be made
from the above passage?
(a) Our governments
are not responsible enough to keep our cities pollution free.
(b) There is
absolutely no need for air quality indices in our country.
(c) Air quality index is not helpful to the residents of many of our large cities.
(d) In every
city, public awareness about pollution problems should increase.
Ans: C
Passage-2
Productive jobs are vital for growth and a good job is the best form of inclusion. More than half of our population depends on agriculture, but the experience of other countries suggests that the number of people dependent on agriculture will have to shrink if per capita incomes in agriculture are to go up substantially. While industry is creating jobs, too many such jobs are low-productivity non-contractual jobs in the unorganized sector, offering low
incomes, little protection,
and no benefits. Service jobs are relatively of high productivity, but employment
growth in services has been slow in recent years.
62. Which
among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made
from the above passage?
(a) We must
create conditions for the faster growth of highly productive service jobs to
ensure employment growth and inclusion.
(b) We must shift the farm workers to the highly productive manufacturing and service sectors to ensure the economic growth and inclusion.
(c) We must
create conditions for the faster growth of productive jobs outside of
agriculture even while improving the productivity of agriculture.
(d) We must
emphasize the cultivation of high-yielding hybrid varieties and genetically
modified crops to increase the per capita income in agriculture.
Ans: C
Passage-3
A landscape-scale approach to land use can encourage greater biodiversity outside protected areas. During hurricane Mitch' in 1998, farms using ecoagricultural practices suffered 58 per cent, 70 per cent and 99 per cent less damage in Honduras, Nicaragua and Guatemala, respectively, than farms using conventional techniques. In Costa Rica, vegetative windbreaks and
fencerows boosted farmers'
income from pasture and coffee while also increasing bird diversity. Bee pollination
is more effective when agricultural fields are closer to natural or seminatural
habitat, a finding that matters because 87 per cent of the world's 107 leading
crops depend on animal pollinators. In Costa Rica, Nicaragua and Colombia
silvopastoral systems that integrate trees with pastureland are improving the
sustainability of cattle production, and diversifying and increasing farmers'
income.
63. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a)
Agricultural practices that enhance biodiversity can often increase farm output
and reduce the vulnerability to disasters.
(b) All the
countries of the world should be encouraged to replace ecoagriculture with
conventional agriculture.
(c) Ecoagriculture
should be permitted in protected areas without destroying the biodiversity
there.
(d) The yield of food crops will be very high if ecoagricultural practices are adopted to cultivate them.
Ans: A
Passage 4
The medium term challenge for Indian manufacturing is to move from lower to higher tech sectors, from lower to higher value-added sectors, and from lower to higher productivity sectors. Medium tech industries are primarily capital intensive and resource processing, and high tech industries are mainly
capital and technology intensive. In order to
push the share of manufacturing in overall GDP to the projected 25 per cent,
Indian manufacturing needs to capture the global market in sectors showing a
rising trend in demand. These sectors are largely high technology and capital
intensive.
64. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) India's
GDP displays high value-added and high productivity levels in medium tech and
resource processing industries.
(b)
Promotion of capital and technology Intensive manufacturing is not possible in
India.
(c) India
should push up the public investments and encourage the private investments in
research and development, technology upgradation and skill development.
(d) India has already gained a great share in global markets in sectors showing a rising trend in demand.
Ans: C
Passage-5
Over the last decade, Indian agriculture has become more robust with record production of food grains and oilseeds. Increased procurement, consequently, has added huge stocks of food grains in the granaries. India is one of the world's top producers of rice, wheat, milk, fruits and vegetables. India is still
home to a quarter of
all undernourished people in the world. On an average, almost half of the total
expenditure of nearly half of the households is on food.
65. Which
among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?
(a)
Increasing the efficiency of farm-to-fork value chain is necessary to reduce
the poverty and malnutrition.
(b) Increasing the agricultural productivity will automatically eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India.
(c) India's
agricultural productivity is already great and it is not necessary to increase
it further.
(d)
Allocation of more funds for social welfare and poverty alleviation programmes
will ultimately eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India.
Ans: A
Passage 6
The States
are like pearls and the Centre is the thread which turns them into a necklace;
if the thread snaps, the pearls are scattered.
66. Which one of the following views corroborates the above statement?
(a) A strong
Centre and strong States make the federation strong
(b) A strong
Centre is a binding force for national integrity.
(c) A strong
Centre is a hindrance to State autonomy.
(d) State
autonomy is a prerequisite for a federation.
Ans: B
Passage-7
Really I think that the poorest he that is in England has a life to live, as the greatest he, and therefore truly, I think it is clear that every man that is to live under a government ought first by his own consent to put himself under the government, and I do think that the poorest man in England is not at all bound in a strict sense to that government that he has not had a voice to put himself under.
67. The
above statement argues for
(a)
distribution of wealth equally to all
(b) rule
according to the consent of the governed
(c) rule of
the poor
(d)
expropriation of the rich
Ans: B
68. The
average rainfall in a city for the first four days was recorded to be 0.40
inch. The rainfall on the last two days was in the ratio of 4:3. The average of
six days was 0.50 inch. What was the rainfall on the fifth day?
(a) 0.60
inch
(b) 0.70 inch
(c) 0.80
inch
(4) 0.90
inch
Ans: C
Directions
for the following 3 (three) items:
Consider
the given information and answer the three items that follow.
A, B, C, D, E, F and Gare Lecturers from different cities Hyderabad, Delhi, Shillong, Kanpur, Chennai, Mumbai and Srinagar (not necessarily in the same
order) who
participated in a conference. Each one of them is specialized in a different
subject, viz., Economics, Commerce, History, Sociology, Geography, Mathematics
and Statistics (not necessarily in the same order). Further
1. Lecturer
from Kanpur is specialized in Geography
2. Lecturer
D is from Shillong
3. Lecturer
C from Delhi is specialized in Sociology
4. Lecturer B is specialized in neither History nor Mathematics
5. Lecturer
A who is specialized in Economics does not belong to Hyderabad
6. Lecturer
F who is specialized in Commerce belongs to Srinagar
7. Lecturer
G who is specialized in Statistics belongs to Chennai
69. Who
is specialized in Geography?
(a) B
(b) D
(c) E
(d) Cannot
be determined as data are inadequate
Ans: A
70. To
which city does the Lecturer specialized in Economics belong?
(a)
Hyderabad
(b) Mumbai
(c) Neither
Hyderabad nor Mumbai
(d) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate
Ans: B
71. Who
of the following belongs to Hyderabad?
(a) B
(b) E
(c) Neither
B nor E
(d) Cannot
be determined as data are inadequate
Ans: B
72. In a school, there are five teachers A, B, CD and E. A and B teach
Hindi and
English. C and B teach English and Geography. D and A teach Mathematics and
Hindi. E and B teach History and French. Who teaches maximum number of
subjects?
a) A
b) B
c) D
d) E
Ans: B
73. A
2-digit number is reversed. The larger of the two numbers is divided by the
smaller one. What is the largest possible remainder?
a) 9
by 27
(c) 36
(d) 45
Ans: D
74. The monthly incomes of X and Y are in the ratio of 4:3 and their
monthly expenses
are in the ratio of 3:2. However, each saves 6,000 rupees per month. What is
their total monthly income?
(a) 28,000
rupees
(b) 42,000
rupees
(c) 56,000
rupees
(d) 84,000
rupees
Ans: B
75. Two walls and a ceiling of a room meet at right angles at a point P. A
fly is in
the air 1 m from one wall, 8 m from the other wall and 9 m from the point P. How
many meters is the fly from the ceiling?
(a) 4
(b) 6
c) 12
d) 15
Ans: A
Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
Consider
the given information and answer the three items that follow.
Eight railway stations A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are connected either by two-way passages or one-way passages. One-way passages are from C to A, E to
G, B to F,
D to H, G to C, E to C and H to G. Two-way passages are between A and E, G and
B, F and D, and E and D.
76. While
travelling from C to H, which one of the following stations must be passed through?
(a) G
(b) E
(c) D
(d) F
Ans: B
77. In
how many different ways can a train travel from F to A without passing through
any station more than once?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans: D
78. If
the route between G and C is closed, which one of the following stations need
not be passed through while travelling from H to C?
a) E
b) D
c) A
d) B
Ans: C
79. There
are certain 2-digit numbers. The difference between the number and the one
obtained on reversing it is always 27. How many such maximum 2-digit numbers
are there?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
(d) None of
the above
Ans: D
80. What
is the total number of digits printed, if a book containing 150 pages is to be
numbered from 1 to 150?
(a) 262
(b) 342
(c) 360
(d) 450
Ans: B

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