Q1) In
the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act,
1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
(1). Gram
Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
(2). Gram
Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
(3).
Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or
mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)1 only
B)1 and 2
only
C)2 and 3
only
D)1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
Q2 In the
Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion
is
A) To allow
a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
B) To let opposition members collect information from the ministers
C) To allow
a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
D) To
postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the
part of some members
Ans: A
Q3 How
does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian
agriculture?
(1). NBA
checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic
resources.
(2). NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.
(3).
Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological
resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.
Which of
the statements given is/are correct?
A)1 only
B)2 and 3
only
C)1 and 3
only
D)1, 2 and 3
only
Ans: C
Q4) The
National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the
following provisions of the Constitution of India?
(1). Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
(2).
Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled
Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under section 275 (1)
(3). Powers
and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243 (A.)
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3 only
Ans: A
Q5) If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?
(1). Part of
the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of waste water.
(2). The
water requirement of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of
water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for use of
ocean water.
(3). All the
rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India.
(4). The
expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore wells and for installing motors
and pump sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the
Government.
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2
only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: B
Q6)
Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State
Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:
(1).
Securing the citizens of India a uniform civil code
(2).
Organizing village Panchayats
(3).
Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
(4). Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities.
Which of
the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive
Principles of State Policy?
A) 1, 2 and
4 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1, 3 and
4 only
D) 1, 2 , 3
and 4
Ans: B
Q7)
Consider the following statements:
1) Union
Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha
2) It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commission to adjudicate the election disputed.
3) According
to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha only.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) None
Ans: D
Q8) With
reference to consumers rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1) Consumers
are empowered to take samples for food testing.
2) When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3) In case
of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer
forum on his/her behalf.
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: C
Q9)
Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following
statements:
1) He/she holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2) He/she
need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to
become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her
election.
3) If he/she
intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the
Deputy Speaker.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 3 only
C) 1, 2 and
3
D) None
Ans: B
Q10) Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1) A dispute
between the Government of India and one or more states
2) A dispute
regarding elections to either Houses of the Parliament or that of Legislature
of a state
3) A dispute
between the Government of India and a Union Territory
4) A dispute
between two or more states
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 4
D) 3 and 4
Ans: C
Q11)
Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1) Bacteria
2) Fungi
3) Flowering
Plants
Some
species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: D
Q12)
Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to
the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1) Coconut
shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.
2) The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
3) The
combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct
heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: D
Q13) What
is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?
Q1) It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
Q2) It
removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
Q3) It
quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves
the clarity of water.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: A
Q14) Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance?
1) It is a
two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.
2) It is one
of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.
3) It is
entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
4) It can be
used as conducting electrodes required for touch screens, LCDs and organic
LEDs.
Which of
the statements given above are correct?
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 3 and 4
only
C) 1, 2 and
4 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: C
Q15)
Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to
petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?
1) Smelting
units
2) Pens and
pencils
3) Paints
4) Hair oil
and cosmetics
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 1 and 3
only
C) 2 and 4
only
D) 1, 2 , 3
and 4
Ans: B
Q16) With
reference to stem cells frequently in the news, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1) Stem
cells can be derived from mammals only.
2) Stem
cells can be used for screening new drugs.
3) Stem
cells can be used for medical therapies
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: B
Q17)
Consider the following statements:
Chlorofluorocarbons,
known as ozone depleting substances, are used
1) in the
production of plastic foams
2) in the production of tubeless tyres
3) in
cleaning certain electronic components
4) as
pressurizing agent in aerosol cans
which of
the statement given above is/are correct?
A) 1, 2 and
3 only
B) 4 only
C) 1, 3 and
4 only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: C
Q18) A
team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory included those from India
created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the
implication/implications of the creation of anti-matter?
1) It will
make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.
2) It will
help prove the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of
anti-matter.
3) It will
help understand the evolution of the universe.
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: B
Q19)
Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for
the continued expansion of universe?
1) Detection
of microwaves in space
2)
Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
3) Movement
of asteroids in space
4) Occurrence of supernova explosions in space
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 only
C) 1, 3 and
4
D) None of
the above can be cited as evidence
Ans: A
Q20)
Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speed of several
hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the
earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?
A) The earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles
B) Ozone
layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space
C) Moisture
in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them from reaching the surface of
the Earth.
D) None of
the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct.
Ans: A
Q21) With
reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements
given below are correct?
1) Different kind of specialized surgical instrument were in common use by 1st century AD.
2)
Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of
3rd century AD.
3) The
concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.
4) The
concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 3 and 4
only
C) 1, 3 and
4 only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: C
Q22) With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?
1) Avoidance
of extremities of penance and enjoyment
2)
Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
3) Denial of
efficacy of rituals
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: B
Q23)
Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of Inclusive
Governance?
Q1) Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
Q2)
Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
Q3)
Increasing the government spending on public health
Q4)
Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme
Select
the correct answers using the codes given below:
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 3 and 4
only
C) 2, 3 and
4 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: C
Q24) The
Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the
A) Three
main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent
B) Three
main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified
C) Three
main styles of Indian temple architecture
D) Three
main musical Gharanas prevalent in India
Ans: C
Q25) The
congress ministries resigned in seven provinces in 1939 because
A) congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces
B) the
emergence of a left wing in the Congress made the working of the ministries
impossible
C) there
were widespread communal disturbances in their provinces
D) None of
the above
Ans: D
Q26) With
reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs
of Asha, a trained community health worker?
1)
Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkups
2) Using
pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy
3) Providing information on nutrition and immunization
4)
Conducting the delivery of baby
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1, 2 and
3 only
B) 2 and 4
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: A
Q27) Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
1)
Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces
2)
Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3)
Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: C
Q28) During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?
A) Different
social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form a single
body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate
petitions/representations to the government.
B) Indian
National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations
and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose
C) Behramji
Malabari and M. G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform
groups of the country under one organization
D) None of
the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
Ans: B
Q29)
Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
1) Peasants and Workers Party of India
2) All India
Scheduled Castes Federation
3) The
Independent Labour Party
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: B
Q30)
Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by
the Constitution of India?
A) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
B) To pass a
resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to
create one or more All India Services
C) To amend
the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the
President after his/her retirement
D) To
determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number
of Election Commissioners
Ans: B
Q31) How
does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options
of rural poor?
1) By
setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness
centres in rural areas
2) By strengthening 'self-help groups' and providing skill development
3) By
supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment
free of cost to farmers
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 2 only
C)1 and 3
only
D)1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
Q32) The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?
1)
Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
2)
Purchasing power parity at national level
3) Extent of
budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level
Which of
the statement given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: A
Q33) Which of the following is /are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?
1) A design
for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence
to the proposed design
2) A design
for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with
India's demographic dividend
3)
Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: C
Q34) What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?
1) Setting
up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
2) Providing
the benefit of 'single window clearance'
3)
Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: D
Q35) Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
1) Placing
Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
2)
Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the
Appropriation Bill
3)
Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
4) A
periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against
macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
5)
Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1, 2, 3
and 5 only
B) 1, 2 and 4 only
C) 3, 4 and
5 only
D) 1, 2, 3,
4 and 5
Ans: A
Q36)
Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because
A) Round
Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations
B) Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion
C) Ramsay
Macdonald announced the Communal Award
D) None of
the these
Ans: C
Q37) With
reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements:
1) The rent
was paid directly by the peasants to the Government.
2) The
Government gave Pattas to the Ryots.
3) The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2
only
C) 1, 2 and
3
D) None
Ans: C
Q38)
Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated
with economic development:
1) Low
birthrate with low death rate
2) High birthrate with high death rate
3) High
birthrate with low death rate
Select
the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below:
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 2, 1, 3
C) 2, 3, 1
D) 3, 2, 1
Ans: C
Q39) In
India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core
Industries have a combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among
those Eight Core Industries?
1) Cement
2)
Fertilizers
3) Natural
gas
4) Refinery
products
5) Textiles
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 and 5
only
B) 2, 3 and
4 only
C) 1, 2, 3
and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3,
4 and 5
Ans: C
Q40)
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing
on Education?
1) Directive
Principles of State Policy
2) Rural and
Urban Local Bodies
3) Fifth
Schedule
4) Sixth
Schedule
5) Seventh
Schedule
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3, 4 and
5 only
C) 1, 2 and
5 only
D) 1, 2, 3,
4 and 5
Ans: D
Q41)
Government of India encourages the cultivation of 'sea buckthorn'. What is the
importance of this plant?
1) It helps
in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.
2) It is a
rich source of biodiesel.
3) It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.
4) Its
timber is of great commercial value.
Which of
the statements given above is /are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2, 3 and
4 only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: C
Q42) Which of the following is the chief characteristic of 'mixed farming'
A)
Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops
B)
Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field
C) Rearing
of animals and cultivation of crops together
D) None of
the above
Ans: C
Q43) A
particular State in India has the following characteristics:
1) It is
located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
2) It has
over 70% of its area under forest cover.
3) Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.
Which one
among the following States has all the above characteristics?
A) Arunachal
Pradesh
B) Assam
C) Himachal
Pradesh
D)
Uttarakhand
Ans: A
Q44)
Consider the following crops of India:
1) Cowpea
2) Green
gram
3) Pigeon
pea
Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 2 only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans:
D
Q45)
Consider the following factors:
1) Rotation
of the Earth
2) Air
pressure and wind
3) Density
of ocean water
4) Revolution of the Earth
Which of
the above factors influence the ocean currents?
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 1, 2 and
3
C) 1 and 4
D) 2, 3 and
4
Ans: B
Q46) With
reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements:
1) The country's total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
2) In India,
the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland
wetlands.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1
and 2
D) Neither 1
nor 2
Ans: A
Q47)
Consider the following crops of India:
1) Groundnut
2) Sesamum
3) Pearl
millet
Which of
the above is/are predominantly rain fed crop/crops?
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: D
Q48) When
you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following:
1) Deep
gorges
2) U-turn
river courses
3) Parallel mountain ranges
4) Steep
gradients causing land-sliding
Which of
the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold
mountains?
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 1, 2 and
4 only
C) 3 and 4
only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: D
Q49)
Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the
Earth's surface, because
1) the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth's surface
2) there is
more moisture in the upper atmosphere
3) the air
is less dense in the upper atmosphere
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: C
Q50) The
acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of
concern?
1) The
growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
2) The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
3) The
survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely
affected.
4) The cloud
seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.
Which of
the statements given above is /are correct?
A) 1, 2 and
3 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: D
Q51) In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
1) CAG
exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of
India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2) CAG
reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are
discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3)
Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press
charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4) While
dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain
judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1, 3 and 4 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3
only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: C
Q52) The
endeavour of 'Janani Suraksha Yojana' Programme is
1) to
promote institutional deliveries
2) to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
3) to
provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement
Which of
the statements given above is /are correct?
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: A
Q53)
Consider the following statements and choose the most valid argument:
The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment-
A) need not
necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become
a member of one of the Houses within six months.
B) need not
necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become
a member of the Lok Sabha only within six months.
C) must be a
member of one of the Houses of the Parliament.
D) must be a
member of the Lok Sabha only.
Ans: A
Q54) With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
1) The
orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2) When the
orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State
Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1
and 2
D) Neither 1
nor 2
Ans: C
Q55)
Consider the following:
1) Hotels
and restaurants
2) Motor
transport undertakings
3) Newspaper
establishments
4) Private
medical institutions
The
employees of which of the above can have the 'Social Security' coverage under
Employees' State Insurance Scheme?
A) 1, 2 and
3 only
B) 4 only
C) 1, 3 and
4 only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: D
Q56)
According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of
India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
1) The
Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2) The
Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3) The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4) The
Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 4
only
C) 1, 3 and
4 only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: C
Q57) A
deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of
the Parliament during the passage of
1) Ordinary Legislation
2) Money
Bill
3)
Constitution Amendment Bill
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: A
Q58) How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?
1) DRDAs act
as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the
country.
2) DRDAs
undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and
malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
3) DRDAs
secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for
effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
4) DRDAs
watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for
anti-poverty programmes.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1, 2 and
3 only
B) 3 and 4 only
C) 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: B
Q59)
Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid
down in the Indian Constitution?
1) To
preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2) To
protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3) To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4) To strive
towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 2 only
C) 1, 3 and
4 only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: C
Q60) What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
1) While
appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the
Chief Justice of India.
2) The
Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3) The
salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which
the legislature does not have to vote.
4) All
appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by
the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 3
only
B) 3 and 4
only
C) 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: A
Q61) To
meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue
research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In
this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?
1) Thorium
is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
2) On the
basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy
compared to natural uranium.
3) Thorium
produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: B
Q62) The
increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the
temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs
A) the water
vapour of the air and retains its heat
B) the
ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
C) all the solar radiations
D) the
infrared part of the solar radiation
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
Ans: D
Q63)
Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the
origin of life on the Earth?
A) Hydrogen,
Oxygen, Sodium
B) Carbon,
Hydrogen, Nitrogen
C) Oxygen,
Calcium, Phosphorus
D) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium
Ans: B
Q64) What
are the reasons for the people's resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal
in India?
1) Bt
brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its
genome.
2) The seeds
of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the
seeds before every season from the seed companies.
3) There is
an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on
health.
4) There is
some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse effect on the
biodiversity.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1, 2 and
3 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 3 and 4
only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: C
Q65)
Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically
engineered plants have been created?
1) To enable
them to withstand drought
2) To
increase the nutritive value of the produce
3) To enable
them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
4) To increase their shelf life
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 3 and 4
only
C) 1, 2 and
4 only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: C
Q66)
Consider the following statements:
The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he
1) exposed
the economic exploitation of India by the British
2)
interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of
Indians
3) stressed
the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
Q67) With
reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept
alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?
1) Dhrupad
originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period.
2) Dhrupad
is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.
3) Dhrupad
Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1, 2 and
3
D) None of
the above is correct
Ans: B
Q68) How
do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?
1) Dancers
occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in
Bharatanatyam.
2) Dancing
on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of
Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1
and 2
D) Neither 1
nor 2
Ans: A
Q69) With
reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were
known to pursue which of the following practices?
1)
Meditation and control of breath
2) Severe
ascetic exercises in a lonely place
3)
Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 2 and 3
only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: D
Q70) The
Rowlatt Act aimed at
A)
compulsory economic support to war efforts
B) imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial
C)
suppression of the Khilafat Movement
D)
imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press
Ans: B
Q71) The
Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in
history, because
1) The
Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence
2) The rift
between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session
3) A resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) None of
the above
Ans: B
Q72) Lord
Buddha's image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called 'Bhumisparsha
Mudra'. It symbolizes
A) Buddha's calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation
B) Buddha's
calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations
of Mara
C) Buddha's
reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally
dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory
D) Both the
statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context
Ans: B
Q73) The
religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of
A) Bhakti
B) image worship and Yajnas
C) worship
of nature and Yajnas
D) worship
of nature and Bhakti
Ans: C
Q74)
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?
1) It
opposed idolatry.
2) It denied
the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
3) It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2
only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: B
Q75) The
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers' bank. This would imply which of
the following?
1) Banks
retain their deposits with the RBI.
2) The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
3) The RBI
advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 2 and 3
only
B) 1 and 2
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: D
Q76)
Under which of the following circumstances may 'capital gains' arise?
1) When there is an increase in the sales of a product
2) When
there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned
3) When you
purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its
popularity
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 2 only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: B
Q77) Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?
1) Purchase
of government securities from the public by the Central Bank
2) Deposit
of currency in commercial banks by the public
3) Borrowing
by the government from the Central Bank
4) Sale of
government securities to the public by the Central Bank
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 4
only
C) 1 and 3
D) 2, 3 and
4
Ans: C
Q78) Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?
1)
Subsidiaries of companies in India
2) Majority
foreign equity holding in Indian companies
3) Companies
exclusively financed by foreign companies
4) Portfolio
investment
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1, 2, 3
and 4
B) 2 and 4
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3 only
Ans: D
Q79)
Consider the following statements:
The price of any currency in international market is decided by the
1) World
Bank
2) demand
for goods/services provided by the country concerned
3) stability
of the government of the concerned country
4) economic
potential of the country in question
Which of
the statements given above are correct?
A) 1, 2, 3
and 4
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 3 and 4
only
D) 1 and 4
only
Ans: B
Q80) The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that
A) big banks
should try to open offices in each district
B) there
should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks
C)
individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development
D) all the
banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits
Ans: C
Q81)
Consider the following:
1) Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops
2) Use of
mobile cannons in warfare
3)
Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies
Which of
the above was/were introduced into India by the English?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) None
Ans: D
Q82) With
reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important
role in the country's economy, which of the following statements is /are
correct?
1) Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them.
2) The
wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.
3) The guild
had judicial powers over its own members.
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 3 only
C) 2 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: C
Q83) The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the:
A)
Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
B)
Government of India Act, 1919
C)
Government of India Act, 1935
D) Indian
Independence Act, 1947
Ans: C
Q84)
Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes
of coal?
1) It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use.
2) Most of
the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get
sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.
3) Steel
companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: B
Q85) A
person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village
which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no
instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most
convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the
A) direction
facing the polestar
B) direction
opposite to the polestar
C) direction
keeping the polestar to his left
D) direction
keeping the polestar to his right
Ans: C
Q86) Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called 'rare earth metals'. Why?
1) China,
which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions
on their export.
2) Other
than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any
country.
3) Rare
earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic
items and there is a growing demand for these elements.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: C
Q87)
Consider the following areas:
1) Bandipur
2)
Bhitarkanika
3) Manas
4)
Sunderbans
Which of
the above are Tiger Reserves?
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 1, 3 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and
4 only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: B
Q88)
Consider the following statements:
1) The
duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.
2) The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1
and 2
D) Neither 1
nor 2
Ans: C
Q89)
Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical
Savannah Region?
A) Rainfall throughout the year
B) Rainfall
in winter only
C) An
extremely short dry season
D) A
definite dry and wet season
Ans:
D
Q90) In
which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local
people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?
A) Biosphere
Reserves
B) National Parks
C) Wetlands
declared under Ramsar Convention
D) Wildlife
Sanctuaries
Ans: B
Q91)
Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1) Bat
2) Bee
3) Bird
Which of
the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 and 3
only
D) 1, 2 and
3
Ans: D
Q92)
Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of
endangered species?
A) Great
Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
B) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
C) Snow
Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane)
D)
Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal
Ans: A
Q93)
Consider the following statements:
If there
were no phenomenon of capillarity,
1) it would
be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
2) one would
not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
3) the blotting paper would fail to function
4) the big
trees that we see around would not have grown on the Earth
Which of
the statements given above are correct?
A) 1, 2 and
3 only
B) 1, 3 and
4 only
C) 2 and 4
only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: B
Q94) The
Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of
ecosystem services-provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and
cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?
A)
Production of food and water
B) Control
of climate and disease
C) Nutrient
cycling and crop pollination
D)
Maintenance of diversity
Ans: C
Q95) What
is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?
A) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains
B) Oryx is
poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk
C) Oryx
exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north-east India only
D) None of
the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct
Ans: A
Q96)
Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical
area?
1) Global
warming
2) Fragmentation of habitat
3) Invasion
of alien species
4) Promotion
of vegetarianism
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1, 2 and
3 only
B) 2 and 3
only
C) 1 and 4
only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: A
Q97)
Consider the following:
1) Black-necked crane
2) Cheetah
3) Flying
squirrel
4) Snow
leopard
Which of
the above are naturally found in India?
A) 1, 2 and
3 only
B) 1, 3 and
4 only
C) 2 and 4
only
D) 1, 2, 3
and 4
Ans: B
Q98)
Consider the following agricultural practices:
1) Contour bunding
2) Relay
cropping
3) Zero
tillage
In the
context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon
sequestration/storage in the soil?
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 3 only
C) 1, 2 and
3
D) None of
them
Ans: B
Q99) What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?
1) The ocean
as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
2) The food
chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
3) The
density of ocean water would drastically decrease.
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 and 2
only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
Q100)
Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are
rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to
A) the
destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species
B) a drug
used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle
C) scarcity
of food available to them
D) a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them
Ans: B
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